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No it is not a direct contraindication. Learn to read before making claims.

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learn to read you say to him? he said 'contradiction' , you say 'contraindication'. vast difference in the two concepts.

All we observers want to know is the truth or otherwise of the masthead claim:

increased risk of infection for vaxxed. Right or wrong?

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"increased risk of infection for vaxxed. Right or wrong?"

Wrong. That's outside the scope of what the paper is studying.

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Well the paper seems to be studying it. Not in such broad terms, granted, but nevertheless. They seem to be saying that in one group they found an increased susceptibility to one mutation as against another. In the other group they didn't. And the two groups were vaxxed and unvaxed.

This would seem to clearly indicate that if you got yourself into the first group you'd now have an increased risk of infection (of those particular variants).

"We find evidence for an increased risk of infection by the Beta (B.1.351), Gamma (P.1), or Delta (B.1.617.2) variants compared to the Alpha (B.1.1.7) variant after vaccination"

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"They seem to be saying that in one group they found an increased susceptibility to one mutation as against another. In the other group they didn't. And the two groups were vaxxed and unvaxed."

Correct.

"This would seem to clearly indicate that if you got yourself into the first group you'd now have an increased risk of infection (of those particular variants)."

Incorrect.

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just wasting my time here. wonder why I do it. okay, try this:

in one group you would find you had 'an increased susceptibility to one mutation as against another'

Hence increased risk of that variant.

End of story

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"in one group you would find you had 'an increased susceptibility to one mutation as against another' "

Only when compared to OTHER PEOPLE IN THAT GROUP.

"Hence increased risk of that variant."

Not necessarily.

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If group A has a 90% chance of an infection being a variant but amt overall chance of infection of 1% then they have an overall 0.9% chance of catching a variant.

And if group B has a 50% chance of an infection being a variant but an overall chance of infection of 10% then they have a 5% overall chance of catching a variant.

All this study looked at is the odds of an infection being a variant. It does not address the overall odds of infection so there's no way to compare between groups.

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quote:

"This indicates lower vaccine effectiveness against infection with the Beta, Gamma and Delta variant compared to the Alpha variant. "

Not that I think the study is worth the paper it is written on. They consistently claim a 95% effectiveness.

Without saying what they mean by that.

That's the same misleading stuff the establishment has always put out, I think.

Original Pfizer study claimed 99.96% effectiveness and that was a mighty, herculean attempt at falsification and misdirection which succeeded beyond, I imagine, anyone's wildest dreams.

For the population believes, I think, that vaccines protect them against a virus with 99.86% effectiveness.

Whereas, of course, a natural immune system without any vaccine protects, according to Pfizer's own figures again, to 99.86%.

Hence the 'effectiveness' the vaccine could rightfully claim would be 0.1%, in truth.

Or, to put it another way, we vaccinate 1000 people to save 1.

At best.

In an environment deliberately made hostile to the immune system.

They claimed to have used a different method of calculating which has something to do, to my mind, with 'closing the gap' or the difference between the mortality with the vaccine and that without.

Fairly irrelevant in context. We know all we need to know with the absolute figure.

Anyone and any study that talks in those terms is to my mind deliberately obscurantist and dedicating to misleading people and I have no time for them.

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What you lack in comprehension you more than compensate for in obstinacy. The entire point of the study is to compare the vaccinated odds of getting infected by new strains to those of the unvaxxed (with naive immunity and recovered). They compare both groups odds relative to alpha, the "original" (the common denominator if you will) so that the probability comparison is apples to apples, and comparable relative to each other. They conclude that if you're vaccinated your risk of the new variants is INCREASED, if you're unvaxxed it remains the same -- this is significant because the risk of getting infected by alpha now is negligible since alpha is basically gone.

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The study DOES NOT say that a vaccinated person has a higher chance of getting a variant than an unvaccinated person. You should work on your reading comprehension instead of spending so much time showing off how stupid you are.

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JFC! "We find evidence for an increased risk of infection by the Beta (B.1.351), Gamma (P.1), or Delta (B.1.617.2) variants compared to the Alpha (B.1.1.7) variant after vaccination."

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An increased risk compared to other vaccinated people...

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"after vaccination" -- means they are comparing the same person before and after vax

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No it doesn't and that's not what they did.

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what are they comparing the after vax status to? LOL

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They are comparing breakthrough infections among vaccinated people to see which strains backbiter people are infected with and determined odds of infection post vaccination for each strain.

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Nov 28, 2021
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Nov 28, 2021
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Yes, they are separately comparing two groups among themselves then comparing those results with each other. (Actually, three groups. They also looked at partially vaccinated.)

If you are vaccinated and you get infected your odds of getting a variant compared to alpha are X.

If you have disease induced immunity and you get reinfected your odds of getting a variant as compared to alpha are Y.

X and Y are NOT overall odds of contracting a covid variant, they are simply looking at people **within each group** who get covid and giving the ratios of strains of infection.

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